Hi guys, I'm trying to understand WHY does an instr ampl have an output voltage offset when it is supplied with single supply? And WHY does the reference voltage fix this problem? Actually I want to understand what's going on inside the instr amp Thanks
Hey, I just came across your question; Now do you understand OpAmps? So,as to speak the so-called instrumentation Amp? As a matter of a fact, this is merely an extended application of the same Differential Input stage of 1 single OpAmp, just with several OpAmps conjucted for the purpose of creating a 'Groundless' Floating Inverting (-) & Non-inverting (+) input ;-? Dunno, where you've got the idea that such Diff.Amps Asymmetrical supplied should have ?NO? Offset? on the contrary to 'standard' OpAmps? Wich are from them selves also Diff.INstr.Amps and all have also their specific caracteristics, like Offset All components inside have a certain 'matched' symmetry, but due to uncontrollable intrinsic wafer diffusions, NOTHING is exact the same. In such it depends of how much you like to spend on an OpAmp for the purpose it is needed? You could try the T.I.'s TLC-versions? These offer selectable offset behaviour. In-My-Humble-Opinion, it's better to have OpAmps WITH offset and to compensate them for...Than to use no compensation at all...And get surprised, with unsuspected behaviour in the long way... Greetzs, Harry - Belgium - Europe.
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